Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 02.07.2025 00:29

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Is the Chinese economy currently collapsing? If not, what could potentially cause it to collapse?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

Triple H: WWE bringing R-Truth back after backlash to departure is ‘all part of the show’ - Awful Announcing

You'll usually find your answer there.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Do you think that Trump's plan to deport undocumented immigrants will solve America's housing crisis?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?